B2 First Reading Parts 5-7: Method, Worked Examples and Practice

Problem: you can understand an English text, but B2 First Reading questions still catch you — two options look right, a gapped sentence fits grammatically but not logically, or ten matching statements blur together. Answer in brief: treat each part as a different skill. In Part 5, match each question to its evidence — usually one or two sentences, sometimes a longer stretch for attitude, tone and purpose questions — and reject options that add, twist or overstate it. In Part 6, connect each gap through pronouns, linkers and story logic, testing every insertion by re-reading. In Part 7, label each text’s gist first, then scan statements back to precise wording, expecting paraphrase rather than repetition. This guide teaches that method with worked examples from the source book, four new practice sets with fully explained answers, and a transparent list of corrections to the book’s own errors.

Learning outcomes

By the end of this guide you will be able to: describe what official B2 First Reading Parts 5, 6 and 7 each test and how many questions each carries; apply a repeatable routine to multiple-choice, gapped-text and multiple-matching tasks; recognise paraphrase and the four useful categories of distractor; and check your own answers against passage evidence instead of memory. The three-option mini-tasks in this article are simplified training drills: the official Part 5 paper gives four options (A–D) per question. The teaching sequence draws on the source book, Cambridge B2 First Reading Mastery with Comprehensive Exam Practice (Jobin Thomas), whose strategy chapters and practice workbook provide the selected examples below.

Map the official Reading paper (Parts 5–7) onto the book’s differently numbered workbook sections.
Answer Part 5 questions by tying each choice to quoted evidence (a sentence or, where the question needs it, a longer stretch), discarding distractors with reasons.
Fill gapped texts by tracking reference chains (pronouns, linkers, time markers) across each gap.
Solve multiple-matching sets by gist-labelling texts before scanning for detail.
Spot and correct slips the source book itself contains, using the notes under Corrections to the source book itself (a record of what was found, not a claim about every possible slip).

The exam and the book: what you are preparing for

Cambridge groups Reading with Use of English as Paper 1 of B2 First: 1 hour 15 minutes, seven parts, 52 questions in total. Parts 1–4 combine short texts with grammar and vocabulary tasks (multiple-choice cloze, open cloze, word formation and key-word transformations); the longer reading-comprehension tasks you are training here are the last three parts. Part 5 is multiple choice based on one long text (six questions, four options A–D on the official paper); Part 6 is a gapped text in which removed sentences must be restored (six gaps, seven option sentences (one unused)); Part 7 is multiple matching (ten questions) based on one long text or several shorter texts. Those figures follow current official Cambridge guidance, linked under Sources — check them there again before test day, since exam details can change.

The source book opens with the same picture: it describes Part 5 as a single text of about 550–600 words with six multiple-choice questions testing detail, inference, opinion and global meaning; Part 6 as a 400–500-word text with six sentences removed, testing cohesion and coherence; and Part 7 as texts with ten matching questions, testing fast location of specific information. Note two simplifications in the book and in this article: the book’s workbook sets and this article’s mini-tasks use three options (A–C), while the official Part 5 gives four (A–D) — treat ours as simplified reasoning drills, not mirrors of the official layout. The book suggests roughly 20 minutes for Part 5, 15 for Part 6, 15–20 for Part 7, plus about 5 minutes for checking. That is already some 55–60 minutes of the 75, leaving only about 15–20 minutes for Parts 1–4 — so treat its split as a starting plan for the reading half, rehearse full 75-minute papers (all seven parts plus checking) in timed practice, and adjust the balance to your own pace.

A numbering warning: the book’s workbook labels differ from the official numbers

The book’s strategy chapters use the official numbering (Parts 5–7), but its practice workbook restarts its own numbering. Read the mapping below before you practise, or you will look for the wrong task type:

Official part versus the book’s workbook label
Official B2 First part	Official task	Book workbook section covering it
Part 5	Multiple choice (6 questions)	“Part 5: Multiple-Choice Reading” (Urban Gardening; Greenway)
Part 6	Gapped text (6 gaps)	“Part 6: Gapped Text” (Oddities Museum; Laxton)
Part 7	Multiple matching (10 questions)	“Part 7: Multiple Matching” (profiles A–F)

The workbook also contains earlier practice sections (“Part 1: Multiple Matching (Short Texts)”, “Part 2: Multiple-Choice Reading”, “Part 3: Text Gaps”, “Part 4: Matching Headings”, “Part 5: Matching Information”) plus Use-of-English-style cloze, word-formation and key-word-transformation drills. Those extra sections are useful general reading and language practice, but they are the book’s own training formats, not official B2 First Reading tasks. Worked examples below keep the two systems separate and say each time which one an item comes from.

One more foundation point the book states well: the paper never tests memory or background knowledge. Every answer is evidenced in the printed text, and questions usually paraphrase rather than repeat it. Each method below is a different way of connecting question wording back to that textual evidence.

Part 5 method: evidence first, then elimination

Use this five-step routine on every multiple-choice question. It is deliberately slow at first; speed comes from repetition, not from skipping steps.

Skim first (2–3 minutes). Read the text quickly for topic, structure and attitude. Mark paragraph openings and the conclusion — that is where global-meaning and attitude questions usually resolve.
Read the question stem, not the options. Underline what is actually asked: a fact (“What did the project achieve?”), a reason (“Why does the writer mention…?”), an attitude (“Which word best describes the tone?”) or a purpose (“What is the primary purpose?”). Predict the answer area before looking at the options (A–D on official papers; A–C in this article’s simplified drills).
Find the evidence. Scan for the keywords or their paraphrases, then read that sentence plus one on each side. Detail questions often settle there; inference, attitude, tone and purpose questions may need several sentences or the passage as a whole. The correct option is the one fully supported by that evidence — not the one that matches a single word.
Eliminate every wrong option with a written reason (three eliminations on an official four-option item; two in this article’s simplified three-option drills). Typical rejects: the not-mentioned option (plausible but absent from the text), the half-true option (one clause right, one clause wrong), the extreme option (“everyone”, “entirely”, “mandatory” where the text is qualified), and the scrambled option (true details from different parts of the text combined into a false claim).
Confirm by substitution. Place your chosen option against the sentence. If any word in the option contradicts or goes beyond the text, restart elimination rather than defending your first instinct.

Mini-illustration from the book’s Greenway passage (quoted passage excerpts with a shortened question; simplified three-option drill, where the official paper would give four options): the text says “A local bus company now runs electric buses that produce no emissions” and “Greenway also introduced a car-sharing system with hybrid vehicles”, alongside protected bike lanes. The question “What changes has Greenway made?” offers “It added electric buses, bike lanes, and a hybrid car-sharing system” against “It banned cars entirely” and “It increased parking fees and taxes on bicycles”. The first option assembles three evidenced details; the second is extreme (nothing was banned); the third contradicts the text’s direction. Two rejections with reasons — that is the whole routine in miniature. One distinction to keep: for the exam answer, “no emissions” is the passage’s wording and you follow it; as a real-world fact it means no exhaust (tailpipe) emissions while running, not zero environmental cost across electricity generation and manufacturing. Literal passage answers and independently verified claims are different checks.

Answering opinion, attitude and purpose questions

Detail questions point at sentences; opinion questions point at evaluative language — adjectives, adverbs and verbs of judgement. In the book’s Urban Gardening article the closing line calls the trend “a positive trend toward greener city living”, and the critics’ concern is answered with a solution (“community organizations can help spread urban gardening to all areas”). That balance — acknowledgement plus proposed remedy — is the textual footprint of an optimistic tone, not an indifferent one. For “primary purpose” questions, choose the option covering the whole passage (explain initiatives and discuss views); options that describe one paragraph, or that claim persuasion against the article’s own stance, fail the coverage test.

Part 6 method: cohesion before grammar

Gapped-text options are written so that several fit a gap grammatically. Check both grammar and the logical connections across the gap. Work gap by gap:

Skim the gapped passage whole. Fix the topic, the narrative or argument arc, and the tone before touching the options.
Read the option set for reference words. Circle pronouns (he, they, this, these, such), names, and discourse markers (however, for example, another, overall). Reference words usually point backwards to something already introduced, though forward reference exists too — and a gapped sentence may introduce a new person or detail. Treat these as clues to test by bridging, not as rules that decide by themselves.
Bridge each gap in both directions. The sentence before the gap sets up expectation; the sentence after it constrains what could have intervened. A candidate sentence must continue the first and lead into the second.
Insert tentatively, then re-read the paragraph whole. Read the completed paragraph carefully: grammar, reference and the development of ideas must all work. A sentence may legitimately change your initial interpretation, so reassess the evidence rather than rejecting it for that reason alone.
Account for every option. At the end, each unused sentence should be rejectable for a stated reason (wrong topic, broken reference chain, conclusion placed mid-text). If a leftover option fits as well as your choice, re-examine that gap — and if two options genuinely fit, the item itself may be ambiguous: note both cases openly rather than inventing a reason to reject one.

Mini-illustration from the book’s model-airplane text (exact excerpts): the sentence before gap [1] says the writer attended an Air Show, “my first time seeing so many aircraft up close”. Option D — “Attending the show was an eye-opener; seeing massive aircraft up close was thrilling and motivated me” — continues that exact experience with a reaction, while option B (“I thought I was the only person interested in this hobby…”) belongs at gap [2], just after the sentence before that gap reveals the writer never showed models to anyone outside the family. The book’s key places D at [1] and B at [2]: before-and-after bridging, not grammar, makes those placements work. Commentary on each choice, rather than the bare letters, is what turns this into learning — and the full worked version, including one gap where two options plausibly fit, appears under Worked example 3.

The reference chain: your most reliable tool

Follow the nouns. If a candidate sentence says “Another highlight is…”, the word another often signals an earlier item of the same kind before the gap. If it says “For example…”, the sentence before the gap often contains a general claim the example illustrates. If it says “Overall…”, it often (not always) concludes. Use these as working hypotheses and always confirm by bridging the gap in both directions — no single marker places a sentence by itself.

Part 7 method: gist labels, then precise scanning

Ten questions across the Part 7 texts (one long text or several shorter ones) punish readers who start matching immediately. Invert the order:

Read the ten statements first. Underline the distinguishing detail in each — the word that separates it from its nearest neighbour (recipes collection versus experimenting; reading novels versus photography workshops).
Skim each text and write a gist label. Four or five words only: “baker — recipes, shares treats”, “travel blogger — 12 countries, bungee jump”. These labels help you choose where to look; the final answer still needs precise evidence.
Scan statement by statement. For each, go to the labelled text and demand a precise match for every element of the statement. Similar is not identical: a text about enjoying kittens does not match a statement about the environment.
Expect paraphrase. “Over 100 recipes” may reappear as “a personal collection of over 100 recipes”; “tried bungee jumping” as “adventurous experiences”. Train the synonym reflex — the book’s Tips chapters are right that wording rarely repeats exactly.
Re-check doubles. One text can answer more than one question, so a used text stays in play. When two statements point at the same text, verify the evidence for each statement; sometimes the same sentence supports more than one match.

Mini-illustration from the book’s profiles (exact excerpts): Bella “has a personal collection of over 100 recipes” and “spends hours experimenting with new recipes” — two statements, one text, two different lines. Daisy “loves spending afternoons at the library reading historical novels” and “practices photography, often attending local workshops” — again one text, two separable evidences. Labelling Bella as “baker” first makes both matches routine; reading without labels makes them blur.

Worked examples from the source book

Each example below states its source status honestly. “Exact excerpt” means the wording is the book’s own; “adapted” means it is shortened or reshaped for this article, with the change described. Answers follow the questions inside disclosure panels so you can attempt each task first. Teaching commentary is kept separate from the answer itself.

Worked example 1 — multiple choice: the Community Garden (exact excerpt)

From the book’s “Part 2: Multiple-Choice Reading” (its own training label, not the official Part 2; a simplified three-option drill, where the official Part 5 gives four options). Read the passage, answer all six questions, then open the answers.

Green Thumb Community Garden was started in 2015 by a group of local residents who wanted to create a green space in the city. Every weekend, volunteers of all ages come together to plant vegetables, flowers, and herbs. In the spring, they build new raised beds and lay fresh soil to prepare for planting. After finishing their gardening tasks in the morning, they sit together for a picnic lunch. During this break, experienced gardeners teach newcomers about composting and keeping plants healthy. Children are also encouraged to join; a special section of the garden is dedicated to them, where they can grow their own small plants. The volunteers work diligently, often kneeling in the soil and using hand tools to care for the plants. By late summer, everyone celebrates the biggest harvest day. They pick ripe tomatoes and cucumbers from the vines. Many families say that having access to these fresh vegetables has improved their diets and brought neighbors closer together. The project has become very popular, and the organizers are thinking about expanding the garden next year by adding a small fruit orchard.

When was the Green Thumb Community Garden founded? A) 2010 B) 2015 C) 2020
What do volunteers build each spring? A) New greenhouses for plants B) Raised beds with fresh soil C) Water channels to irrigate the garden
What activity happens after the morning gardening tasks? A) Volunteers clean up and go home B) The community holds an open market C) They have a picnic lunch with gardening lessons
Who is encouraged to participate in the garden activities? A) Only experienced gardeners B) People of all ages, including children C) Members of the local government
What benefit do families mention about the garden’s produce? A) It has saved them money on groceries B) It improved their diets and community bonds C) It inspired them to travel abroad more
What future plan is mentioned for the garden? A) Adding a children’s playground B) Starting a café on site C) Planting a small fruit orchard

Answers and evidence (questions 1–6)

Answers: 1-B, 2-B, 3-C, 4-B, 5-B, 6-C.

1-B: the opening sentence dates the founding to 2015; 2010 and 2020 never appear, so both are not-mentioned distractors. 2-B: “they build new raised beds and lay fresh soil” — greenhouses and water channels are absent. 3-C: “they sit together for a picnic lunch” and “experienced gardeners teach newcomers” — two evidenced halves assembled into one option, a standard correct-answer shape. 4-B: “volunteers of all ages” plus the dedicated children’s section; A contradicts the newcomers and children, C is absent. 5-B: “improved their diets and brought neighbors closer together”; money-saving and travel are never mentioned. 6-C: “adding a small fruit orchard”; playground and café are absent.

Commentary: every correct option here is a paraphrase of one or two sentences, and every distractor is either absent from the passage or contradicts it. That is the normal Part 5 economy — practise rejecting with the sentence named, not with a feeling.

Worked example 2 — Urban Gardening: quoted passage with adapted questions

From the book’s “Part 5: Multiple-Choice Reading”, the section that trains for the official Part 5 (simplified to three options per question; official papers give four). The passage is quoted in full; the questions are shortened adaptations of the book’s questions. Attempt them before opening the panel. The “Green Rooftops” figures (over 100 buildings in Paris) are the passage’s own claims for comprehension practice, not independently verified facts about a real project.

In recent years, many cities have launched initiatives to make urban life more sustainable. One example is urban gardening. Residents are converting small rooftop spaces or abandoned plots into gardens. These gardens not only produce fresh vegetables but also improve air quality and community well-being. For instance, a project in Paris called “Green Rooftops” has turned the roofs of over 100 buildings into edible gardens. Experts say this can help reduce a city’s carbon footprint and promote healthy eating. However, maintaining these gardens requires volunteers and funding. Some critics argue that the benefits may be limited to wealthier neighborhoods where people can afford such projects. Others respond that community organizations can help spread urban gardening to all areas. Overall, urban gardening is seen as a positive trend toward greener city living.

What is one benefit of urban gardening projects? A) They ensure everyone in the city gets free vegetables. B) They reduce the need for public transportation. C) They provide fresh produce and improve the urban environment.
The “Green Rooftops” project is mentioned as an example. What did it achieve? A) It turned the roofs of many buildings into gardens. B) It organized workshops on recycling. C) It made rooftop gardens mandatory for new buildings.
What concern do some critics have? A) That benefits may be limited to wealthier neighborhoods. B) That it makes food too expensive. C) That it increases traffic.
How do supporters respond to the concern? A) They say community groups can help spread gardening to more areas. B) They agree only small gardens should be allowed. C) They argue plants will spread without effort.
Which word best describes the overall tone? A) Optimistic B) Pessimistic C) Indifferent
What is the primary purpose of the passage? A) To explain urban gardening initiatives and discuss opinions about them. B) To persuade readers not to start rooftop gardens. C) To advertise a gardening product.

Answers and evidence (questions 1–6)

Answers: 1-C, 2-A, 3-A, 4-A, 5-A, 6-A.

1-C: “produce fresh vegetables” plus “improve air quality” — “free vegetables for everyone” overstates (extreme), transport is absent. 2-A: “turned the roofs of over 100 buildings into edible gardens”; workshops and mandatory rules are absent. 3-A: the critics’ sentence, quoted almost verbatim; B and C never appear. 4-A: “community organizations can help spread urban gardening to all areas”; B concedes what supporters never concede, C invents a claim. 5-A: “a positive trend toward greener city living” closes the passage; the criticisms are acknowledged and answered, which rules out pessimistic, and the evaluative language rules out indifferent. 6-A: the passage explains the initiatives and airs both views; B reverses its stance and C mistakes explanation for advertising.

Commentary: each answer above was checked against its own evidence on several sentences where needed, and each holds. Identical letters across a training set prove nothing either way — judge every question on its evidence, and never keep or change an answer because of its letter.

Worked example 3 — gapped text: the model-airplane hobby (exact excerpt, taught as ambiguity analysis)

From the book’s “Part 3: Text Gaps” training section (a shortened drill: four gaps from five options, where the official Part 6 has six gaps from seven sentences). The body text, the five option paragraphs and the book’s answer key (D, B, C, E; A unused) are quoted; the teaching commentary is new. Gap [3] is presented honestly below as ambiguous — two options plausibly fit — rather than as a clean single-answer item.

I have always loved building model airplanes. Last summer, I attended an Air Show with a friend, my first time seeing so many aircraft up close. [1] I had been making small wooden models in my bedroom ever since I was a child, but I’d never shown them to anyone outside my family. [2] It was surprising to discover others were so interested in model building as well. [3] In fact, I talked to a contest judge who gave me advice and then entered one of my models into a competition. Remarkably, I won second prize. [4] After returning home, I decided to set up a dedicated workshop in the garage to improve my skills and pursue this hobby more seriously.

Options: A. I met some fellow model builders there and we exchanged ideas and techniques. B. I thought I was the only person interested in this hobby until I saw the enthusiasm of others around me. C. Talking to a judge gave me some great advice and inspiration for future projects. D. Attending the show was an eye-opener; seeing massive aircraft up close was thrilling and motivated me. E. It was more than just fun — I realized I could turn model design into a long-term passion.

Answers and cohesion notes (gaps [1]–[4])

Answers: [1]-D, [2]-B, [3]-C, [4]-E. Option A is unused.

[1]-D: the sentence before the gap introduces a first close encounter with real aircraft; D reacts to exactly that (“eye-opener… thrilling”). [2]-B: the sentence before the gap says the writer had made models since childhood but never shown them to anyone outside the family; B (“I thought I was the only person interested… until I saw the enthusiasm of others”) explains why the interest discovered in the sentence after the gap was surprising — a bridge in both directions. [3] — ambiguous, taught openly: the key’s C (“Talking to a judge gave me some great advice…”) anticipates the following sentence (“I talked to a contest judge who gave me advice”), which makes it the tighter fit; but A (“I met some fellow model builders there and we exchanged ideas and techniques”) also plausibly continues the previous sentence (“It was surprising to discover others were so interested in model building as well”) before the “In fact…” judge sentence. Neither bridge rejects A on reference or logic alone, so this gap, as printed, has two defensible insertions — the book’s key (C) is followed, but A cannot be ruled out honestly, and a real paper would not allow this. [4]-E: the following sentence commits to a workshop and serious pursuit; E (“more than just fun… long-term passion”) bridges the prize to that decision.

Commentary: gaps [1], [2] and [4] show reference-chain reading working cleanly — that experience (D), only person… until (B), more than fun… passion… workshop (E). Gap [3] shows its limit: option C largely repeats the sentence after the gap, so it tests recognition more than inference, while option A fits the sentence before it. The lesson is a real one — when two insertions both bridge, say so (as here) instead of inventing a rejection; an ambiguous practice item should not be used as a reliable measure of your reading score.

Worked example 4 — matching headings: innovations in daily life (exact excerpt)

From the book’s “Part 4: Matching Headings” training section: five paragraphs, eight headings, three headings unused. Match first, then check.

Paragraph 1: Imagine waking up in a home where your lights turn on and coffee maker starts automatically at your voice command. Smart home technology makes this possible. Families now install devices allowing them to set thermostats or control appliances from their phones. This adds convenience and saves energy, as homes can better regulate power use based on the occupants’ needs.

Paragraph 2: Air pollution is a problem in many cities, and electric vehicles offer a solution. Modern electric cars produce no exhaust emissions and can be charged at stations powered by renewable energy. Some new city buses and bikes are also battery-powered, helping to reduce overall pollution. People who switched to electric cars often note that they are cheaper to run than petrol vehicles.

Paragraph 3: Wearable fitness trackers and health apps are changing personal healthcare. These devices monitor heart rate, sleep patterns, and activity levels, providing real-time feedback. Doctors can receive patient data remotely, making check-ups easier. Telemedicine services allow patients in remote areas to consult doctors via video calls, greatly improving access to medical advice.

Paragraph 4: Streaming services and smartphones have revolutionized entertainment. Now we can instantly watch movies and TV shows from anywhere, without needing DVDs or downloads. Virtual reality headsets are becoming popular, immersing gamers and viewers in fully interactive worlds. Many people are switching from traditional cable to streaming platforms for the variety and convenience they offer.

Paragraph 5: Technology is also transforming farming. Drones can spray fields more precisely than tractors, saving water and reducing pesticides. Farmers use sensors in the soil to track moisture levels, watering crops only when needed. These innovations lead to higher crop yields and less waste, making agriculture more sustainable.

Headings: A. The future of entertainment might be virtual. B. Sustainable practices in the kitchen. C. Smart homes simplifying household chores. D. Advancements in medical technology. E. Modern vehicles and cleaner travel. F. Growing crops with advanced methods. G. The evolution of radio broadcasting. H. New methods for remote working.

Answers and gist notes (paragraphs 1–5)

Answers: 1-C, 2-E, 3-D, 4-A, 5-F. Headings B, G and H are unused (three headings: eight given minus five paragraphs). Note honestly: the book’s own key names only B and H as unused — an undercount, since G (radio broadcasting, which appears nowhere) is unused too. Its instruction saying two headings are extra also needs this correction: there are three.

1-C: lights, thermostats, appliances — household control throughout. 2-E: electric cars, buses, bikes, emissions — travel throughout (the passage’s “no exhaust emissions” is the wording the exam answer follows; as a real-world fact it means no tailpipe emissions, not zero lifecycle emissions). 3-D: trackers, remote data, telemedicine — health technology throughout. 4-A: the best fit, with a caveat — the paragraph covers streaming and virtual reality, while heading A (“The future of entertainment might be virtual”) names only the virtual element; it matches on main topic via the VR sentences rather than summarising every detail. 5-F: drones, soil sensors, yields — farming throughout. B fails because no paragraph concerns kitchens or cooking; G fails because radio never appears; H fails because remote working never appears (remote medicine does — a classic near-miss distractor).

Commentary: each heading matches its paragraph’s main topic — not necessarily every detail, as heading A shows. The traps (H especially) work by single-word overlap — “remote” — without topic match. Gist-labelling each paragraph before looking at the headings defeats that move.

Worked example 5 — multiple matching: volunteer experiences (adapted excerpt)

Adapted from the book’s “Part 5: Matching Information” training section: four of its six profiles are reproduced exactly, with four matching statements (a simplified drill — the official Part 7 has ten questions). The book’s letters are kept so you can cross-check the original.

A. I volunteered at a community literacy program. Teaching adults to read was incredibly rewarding. Watching their faces light up when they recognized words for the first time was an unforgettable moment. I felt proud knowing I had helped someone change their life.

C. I joined a beach cleanup crew. We spent hours picking up trash and recyclables along the shore. By the end of the day, I was exhausted, but the beach looked beautiful. It showed me that even hard work can make a big difference for the environment.

D. As a volunteer translator in Mexico, I practiced my Spanish while helping local kids. At first I felt shy using a different language, but I improved quickly. This trip gave me confidence and taught me that I can learn new things by stepping out of my comfort zone.

F. I spent time at a community kitchen, serving meals to people in need. Listening to their stories made me appreciate the comforts I have. Small acts of kindness, like offering a warm meal, can truly change someone’s day.

The volunteer felt deeply rewarded when helping learners improve skills.
The volunteer did hard labour but was satisfied with the environmental outcome.
Helping in a foreign country improved the volunteer’s confidence in using a new language.
Listening to personal stories made the volunteer grateful for what they have.

Answers and evidence (statements 1–4)

Answers: 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-F.

1-A: “incredibly rewarding… helped someone change their life” matches “deeply rewarded… learners improve”. 2-C: “hours picking up trash… exhausted, but the beach looked beautiful” matches “hard labour… satisfied with the environmental outcome”. 3-D: “practiced my Spanish… I improved quickly… gave me confidence” matches all three elements of the statement. 4-F: “Listening to their stories made me appreciate the comforts I have” is close to a direct match for “grateful for what they have”.

Commentary: statements 1 and 4 show the two poles of paraphrase — “rewarding/helped change their life” for “deeply rewarded/learners improve” is loose, while “listening to stories/appreciate comforts” for “listening to stories/grateful” is tight. Expect both strengths in one set, and always verify every element: statement 3 needs foreign country and language and confidence, and D supplies all three.

Practice bank: four new sets with explained answers

All four sets below are newly written for this article: the passages, figures and people are fictional illustrations supplied here so you can apply the methods above. They are suggested practice, not official exam material, and the answers are suggested models with evidence. They are also simplified: three options where the official Part 5 gives four, three gaps from five options where the official Part 6 has six gaps from seven sentences, and five statements where the official Part 7 has ten. Attempt each set before opening its panel.

Practice 1 — Part-5-style: the Repair Café on Mill Lane (newly written)

The town of Millfield held its first repair café in 2019, when twelve volunteers spent a Saturday mending kettles, bicycles and jackets in a church hall. Six years later, the event fills the community centre on the first Saturday of every month. Visitors bring broken items to shared workbenches, where volunteers diagnose each fault aloud so that owners can learn the fix. Bookings rose from 120 in 2021 to 210 in 2023, and each monthly event now includes an evening session as well as daytime activities, helping people who work during the day to attend. Last year the café recorded its busiest month yet: 34 separate repairs in a single day, from a split chair leg to a twenty-year-old radio that played again after a cleaned battery contact. The council now lends the centre free of charge, although the café still pays for spare parts from donations. Its founder, Mara Ellison, says the aim was never to compete with local shops. “We send anything under warranty straight back to the retailer,” she explains, “and several shops now refer customers to us for items they would otherwise have thrown away.”

How often does the repair café currently meet? A) Every Saturday B) Once a month C) Once a year
What do volunteers do while repairing an item? A) Explain the fault so owners can learn B) Charge owners for their time C) Send all electrical items to shops
What happened to bookings between 2021 and 2023? A) They fell from 210 to 120 B) They rose from 120 to 210 C) They stayed at 120
Why did the organisers add an evening session? A) For people who work during the day B) Because the council required it C) To compete with local shops
What is the founder’s stated attitude to local shops? A) The café aims to replace them B) The café cooperates with them C) The café refuses their referrals

Answers and evidence (Practice 1)

Answers: 1-B, 2-A, 3-B, 4-A, 5-B.

1-B: “the first Saturday of every month” — each monthly event includes daytime and evening sessions; weekly and yearly options contradict the stated pattern. 2-A: “volunteers diagnose each fault aloud so that owners can learn the fix”; charging is never mentioned and only under-warranty items go back to retailers, not all electrical items. 3-B: the figures are stated directly — 120 in 2021, 210 in 2023 — so A reverses them and C ignores the rise. Note the disciplined reading here: 210 is higher than 120, but the passage never says bookings doubled, and neither should you. 4-A: “helping people who work during the day to attend”; the council lends the room but required nothing, and competing with shops is explicitly denied. 5-B: under-warranty items go back to retailers and shops refer customers to the café — cooperation in both directions, ruling out replacement and refusal.

Commentary: questions 3 and 5 reward the two habits this guide keeps repeating — report only the numbers given (higher, not doubled), and let a direct quotation (“never… compete”) settle attitude questions.

Practice 2 — Part-7-style: four weekend courses (newly written)

Label each text’s gist before matching. One text answers two statements.

A. Petra: “I signed up for the Saturday pottery course because I wanted to make Christmas gifts. Centring the clay defeated me for three weeks — my bowls kept collapsing — but the tutor photographed each failure so I could see the slow improvement. My final set of cups is lopsided and I love it.”

B. Jonas: “The first-aid certificate course was the most demanding weekend I have spent indoors. We practised recovery positions on volunteers and took a written test on Sunday afternoon. I passed with 88 per cent, and the certificate is valid for three years. I have already used the choking-response drill once, at a family dinner.”

C. Amara: “Our local astronomy club ran a beginner night on the hill: Saturn’s rings through the club telescope, then hot chocolate while the leader named the constellations. I could not operate the telescope controls myself, but I downloaded their star chart and now identify three constellations from my balcony.”

D. Theo: “I chose the bicycle-maintenance workshop after my gears failed on a rainy commute. We stripped and rebuilt a hub gear, adjusted brakes, and each of us fixed one real puncture. The instructor kept every old inner tube for recycling, which impressed me more than the tools did.”

The learner’s gradual progress after repeated failures was photographed by the tutor.
Gained a qualification that lasts for a fixed period.
Used a newly learned emergency skill in real life.
Could not use the main equipment but continued learning with a simpler aid.
Was struck by the organiser’s attitude to waste materials.

Answers and evidence (Practice 2)

Answers: 1-A, 2-B, 3-B, 4-C, 5-D.

1-A: “the tutor photographed each failure so I could see the slow improvement” — the tutor is the photographer, the learner’s failures-then-progress the subject; both elements of the statement are present. 2-B: “the certificate is valid for three years.” 3-B: “I have already used the choking-response drill once” — same text as 2, different line, which is why used texts stay in play. 4-C: “I could not operate the telescope controls myself, but I downloaded their star chart” — inability plus simpler aid, both elements present. 5-D: “kept every old inner tube for recycling, which impressed me” — attitude to waste, not tools.

Commentary: statement 4 rewards reading to the end of the sentence: “could not operate” feels negative, but the statement turns on the recovery (“continued learning”). In matching tasks, read to the end of the sentence before rejecting.

Practice 3 — gapped-text-style: the seed library (newly written)

This short fictional drill has three gaps and five options. Choose one sentence for each gap; two options are unused. Follow the references and compare the figures before checking the answer.

At Ferry Road Library, a volunteer named Lina proposed lending seeds to local gardeners. [1] He agreed to construct it from spare timber, and the finished cupboard now stands beside the entrance.

Borrowers take one labelled packet and, where possible, return seed collected from a healthy plant. Before returned seed is shelved, librarian Ms Okafor checks its label. [2] Packets missing either detail are held aside until the donor supplies it.

The library recorded twelve borrowers in its first year and eighty in its second. [3] This rise persuaded the council to fund an additional cupboard.

A. That was an increase of sixty-eight borrowers.
B. Lina asked a local carpenter, David, to make a small cupboard for the packets.
C. She refuses all returned seed, regardless of what its label says.
D. The scheme had fewer borrowers in its second year than in its first.
E. It must give both the plant name and the year the seed was collected.

Answers and cohesion notes (Practice 3)

Answers: [1] B, [2] E, [3] A. Options C and D are unused.

Gap 1: B introduces David and the cupboard. The following sentence then has clear references: he is David, and it is the cupboard. The other options do not introduce the person and object needed by that sentence. This is a specific reference check, not a rule banning a new name inside a gap.

Gap 2: E explains the two details required on the label: plant name and collection year. The following phrase either detail refers directly to those two pieces of information. The other options do not supply this pair. C is also inconsistent with the procedure: the text describes checking and accepting returned seed once the missing information is supplied, rather than refusing every return.

Gap 3: A accurately compares the two stated totals: 80 minus 12 is 68. That points to the previous figures, while This rise in the next sentence refers to the increase. D says the opposite of the figures. B introduces a different event and E describes a label, so neither makes this numerical link.

The unused sentences are rejected on what the whole passage says. C conflicts with the return procedure, and D reverses the direction of change. The answers do not depend on an assumed rule that an origin sentence must go first or a summary must go last.

Practice 4 — distractor drill: choose the fully supported option (newly written)

Each item quotes two or three lines, then offers three options. Only one is fully supported; name the fault in each rejected option (absent, extreme, reversed, scrambled).

“The pool opens at 7 a.m. for lane swimming; public sessions begin at 9.” A) The pool opens at 9. B) Lane swimming starts before public sessions. C) The pool closes at 7.
“Although the fee rose this year, the annual fee is still lower than in 2019.” A) The fee fell this year. B) The fee is at its highest ever level. C) The fee is still below its 2019 level.
“Dr Patel praised the volunteers but warned that funding remained uncertain.” A) Dr Patel criticised the volunteers. B) Dr Patel combined praise with a warning about funding. C) Dr Patel guaranteed future funding.
“Two of the four bridges were closed for repairs; the northern two stayed open.” A) All four bridges closed. B) Half the bridges stayed open. C) The southern bridges stayed open.
“The survey found most respondents walked to work, while a minority cycled.” A) Most respondents cycled. B) Nobody walked. C) Walking was more common than cycling.
“Entry is free for members, half price for students, and full price otherwise.” A) Students pay nothing. B) Members pay nothing. C) Everyone pays full price.

Answers with distractor faults (Practice 4)

Answers: 1-B, 2-C, 3-B, 4-B, 5-C, 6-B.

1-B: 7 a.m. precedes 9 a.m. in the lines; A confuses the two times (scrambled), C invents a closing time (absent). 2-C: the fee as subject is “still lower than in 2019” directly; A reverses the stated rise (“rose this year” rules out “fell”), B contradicts the comparison with an extreme (“highest ever”). 3-B: praise plus warning, both present; A reverses praise into criticism, C upgrades “uncertain” to a guarantee (extreme). 4-B: two of four is half; A extends the closure to all four (extreme), C mislabels which pair stayed open (scrambled — the text says northern). 5-C: most versus minority; A and B each reverse one half of the finding. 6-B: members are free; A confuses students’ half price with free (scrambled), C ignores both concessions (extreme).

Commentary: four fault types cover nearly every Part 5 miss — absent, extreme, reversed, scrambled. Writing the fault beside each rejection, as above, is the habit that converts careless losses into steady marks.

Common errors — and transparent corrections to the book

Official Part 6 option count: the strategy chapter lists eight possible sentences and two distractors. The official task supplies seven sentences A–G for six gaps, leaving one unused. Treat the book’s differently sized sets as its own training format.

First, six mistakes worth avoiding, each with a correction:

Matching single words instead of whole meanings. Choosing “remote working” because the text says “remote” (telemedicine) is the Innovations heading-H trap. Fix: cover the heading with your hand, summarise the paragraph in five words, then uncover.
Assembling truth from scattered lines. An option can contain three true facts from different paragraphs and still be wrong if their combination is never stated. Fix: demand stated evidence for each option — sometimes one sentence, sometimes several.
Upgrading qualified claims. “Higher than in 2021” is not “doubled”; “limited to wealthier neighborhoods” is not “only the wealthy benefit”. Fix: circle quantifiers (all, most, only, never, over) in both text and option and compare them.
Placing a summary without checking its scope. In gapped tasks, “Overall…” may summarise a paragraph or a whole text. Its position depends on what it summarises and the surrounding sentences. Fix: read your filled passage end to end before committing.
Discarding used texts in matching sets. One profile can answer twice (Bella, Daisy, Jonas above). Fix: eliminate statements, not texts.
Answering from background knowledge. Claims about Paris roofs or electric buses may feel true whether or not the passage states them. Fix: exam answers follow the passage’s wording (even “no emissions” or “over 100 roofs”, which are the passages’ claims for the exercise); real-world verification is a separate step. If you cannot point at the lines, you do not have the exam answer.

Corrections to the source book itself

The source book is preserved as written; nothing below alters it. But a teaching article must not repeat its slips silently, so slips noticed while reading the EPUB in full are listed here with corrections. The list covers what was found; it is not presented as an exhaustive count of every possible slip:

Workbook numbering versus official numbering. The practice workbook’s “Parts 1–5” and its Use-of-English-style “Parts 1–7” are the book’s own training labels and do not correspond to official B2 First Parts 1–7. Use the mapping table under A numbering warning.
A defective museum gap-fill task. The source prints several consecutive gaps and its key acknowledges a problem with the final insertion. This does not establish a unique shortened answer set. Use the passage for discussion or editing, and choose a clearly solvable task for timed assessment.
One key-word-transformation item is not a transformation. The “until” item prints the identical sentence twice (“She looked after the children until their parents came home”), so there is nothing to rewrite. A real item would supply a different starter, for example with “up to the time”. Do not memorise the pair as printed.
“The farm life” needs its context read carefully. In the second multiple-choice cloze Sam volunteers on a small organic farm, and the next sentence runs “He realized that ___ farm life was very hard work”; the key gives “the”. A generic statement would normally take no article (“farm life is hard work”), but here the previous sentence has already identified a specific farm and its way of life, so the definite article reads as pointing back to that identified life — the farm life he had just shared. On that specific reading the key’s “the” is defensible; a general reading without an article is also natural. The available context should not be used to claim that only one interpretation is possible. Lesson: article choice follows identification in context, not a blanket ban on “the”.
Two strained phrases in the treehouse cloze. “He had to be precise to detail” should be “precise about detail” (or “pay attention to detail”), and “he stood determined” should be “he remained determined” (or “stood firm”). The tested answers (precise; determined) still stand — only the framing lines need the repair.
The OVERDO word-formation prompt is defective. The technology passage (“this trend could have ___ (OVERDO) effects: spending too much time on devices…”) keys “overdone”. But “overdone” standardly means overcooked (food) or carried too far (an effort) — it does not mean undercooked, and no standard OVERDO derivative sits naturally before “effects”. Do not memorise the pair as a model. Repaired drill, newly written and labelled: “Spending too much time on devices can have ___ (HARM) effects on sleep. → harmful.” Here the root HARM supplies the adjective the slot actually needs.
“Complete the experience” is grammatical. The volunteering open cloze (“those who ___ the experience find it extremely rewarding”) keys “complete”, and “complete the experience” (finish it) is acceptable English — there is no prohibition to learn here. “Complete the programme” would be the more usual collocation in a course context, but the key stands as printed; treat “complete” as the book’s suggested answer, while recognising that other verbs may fit an open gap with a different meaning.
Answer clustering proves nothing. Both “Part 5” worked sets in the book resolve mostly or entirely to one letter. The answers check out against their passages (verified line by line for this article), and letter patterns decide nothing: judge each question on its evidence, and never keep or change an answer because of its letter.

Independent task and self-check

Do this timed (30 minutes) without reopening the panels above. It is newly written for this article; the situation and figures are fictional.

The fictional harbour town of Port Merrick opened a floating sauna in 2022. In its first winter it sold 400 sessions; by the winter of 2024 it sold 950, split between residents and visitors. The council credits a booking app introduced in 2023, while the operator thanks volunteer “sauna hosts” who explain the hot-cold routine to newcomers. Critics note the jetty queues at weekends; supporters reply that a second raft, funded by donations, will open next spring. The operator states: “We have never advertised outside the town.”

Write a three-sentence gist label for the passage (topic, change over time, contested point).
Draft one multiple-choice question with three options in which the correct answer assembles two evidenced details and each distractor carries a named fault (absent, extreme, reversed or scrambled).
Remove one sentence from the passage, write three candidate insertions (one correct, two distractors), and state the reference chain that identifies the correct one.
Write two matching statements about the passage that both point at the same sentence but test different elements of it.

Self-check guidance (not a single correct answer)

There is no single valid response — this is deliberate, and any article claiming otherwise for an open task would mislead you. Check yourself instead: (1) your label names the sauna, the 400-to-950 rise and the queues-versus-new-raft dispute; (2) your correct option quotes or closely paraphrases two stated facts (for instance the app year plus the hosts’ role) while each distractor’s fault is one you could defend aloud — watch the numbers, since 950 is more than double 400 (2 × 400 = 800), so “more than doubled” would be legitimate here and “doubled exactly” would not; (3) your correct insertion contains a reference (usually backwards-pointing — a pronoun, “this routine”, “that queue”; occasionally forwards) that only its gap position satisfies; (4) your two statements genuinely share one sentence yet test separable facts (for example the year of the app versus who the council credits). If any check fails, redo that item before moving on.

Study sequence with the book

Four weeks, about 30 minutes a day, alternating method study with the book’s own chapters:

Week 1 — Part 5 foundations. Read the book’s Part 5 strategy chapter; do its Community Garden set untimed using the five-step routine, writing rejections with reasons. Log every miss under its fault type.
Week 2 — Cohesion. Read the gapped-text chapter; do the model-airplane set, then the Laxton set, bridging every gap in both directions. Re-read each filled passage whole.
Week 3 — Speed matching. Read the Part 7 chapter; do the profiles and volunteer sets with gist labels and a 15-minute limit. Practise leaving used texts in play.
Week 4 — Mixed timed work. Split each full round across two days (about 30 minutes each) or use one longer weekend sitting of roughly 50–55 minutes: one set of each type under the book’s split (roughly 20/15/15–20 minutes); finish with this article’s practice bank as further timed material, attempted without reopening the answer panels. Rehearse at least one full 75-minute paper (all seven parts plus checking), since the reading parts share the paper with Parts 1–4. Revisit the corrections list so none of the book’s slips enters your own English.

FAQs

Should I read the whole text or go straight to the questions? Skim the text first for gist, then read the questions, then return for detail. Starting with questions alone turns every option into a memory test; starting with slow full reading burns the clock. The skim-first compromise is the one the book and this guide both recommend.

How do I handle two options that both look correct? Place each against the evidence and compare every word, especially quantifiers and scope. The usual difference is one added, dropped or stretched word. If both still fit after widening the window by a line each side, allow that the item itself may be ambiguous or defective: note both cases openly (this guide does exactly that for the model-airplane gap [3]) rather than forcing a rejection or assuming you misread.

Is it worth learning all the book’s extra workbook formats (headings, short texts, cloze)? Yes, as general English training — headings practice sharpens gist reading and cloze work builds the vocabulary that paraphrase questions demand. Just do not mistake them for official task formats on test day.

What if I finish early? Spend the time re-checking answers you were unsure of and confirming that each gapped insertion reads fluently in both directions, not changing answers on instinct. The book’s advice is sound here: no penalty attaches to guessing, so never leave blanks.

The book’s numbering confused me — did I practise the wrong tasks? Probably not, as long as you matched formats rather than numbers. Use the mapping table: official Part 5 is multiple choice, Part 6 gapped text, Part 7 multiple matching, whatever a workbook heading calls them.

How should I use the corrections list? As a final filter. The book’s methods and most of its keys are serviceable; the listed slips are specific and local. Read them once, annotate your copy mentally, and move on — the exam tests your reading, not the book’s proofreading.

The matching book

This guide accompanies Cambridge B2 First Reading Mastery with Comprehensive Exam Practice (Jobin Thomas) — the strategy chapters for official Parts 5–7 plus the practice workbook of matching, multiple-choice, gap-fill, headings, cloze, word-formation and transformation drills with answer keys, exercises of the kind sampled above. You can find its current listing here: Cambridge B2 First Reading — Book 1 in the Jobins Training book collection. The book adds the full exercise bank this article samples.

Continue your practice with Cambridge B2 First Reading Mastery with Comprehensive Exam Practice

Want more practice? This article introduces the key principles, but Cambridge B2 First Reading Mastery with Comprehensive Exam Practice provides additional practice, worked examples and structured preparation. View the book →

Sources and editorial note

Source book read for this article: Cambridge B2 First Reading Mastery with Comprehensive Exam Practice (Jobin Thomas) — using its strategy chapters and selected workbook exercises and answer keys. The book’s catalogue title is “Cambridge b2 – 159-2”. Items labelled “exact excerpt” reproduce the book’s wording selectively without reproducing the book whole; items labelled “adapted” state their change; items labelled “newly written” are original to this article, with fictional passages, figures and people supplied here and stated as such. Page numbers are not cited (reflowable EPUB).

Exam format figures follow current official Cambridge guidance: B2 First exam format — Reading and Use of English and the B2 First handbook for teachers (1 hour 15 minutes; seven parts and 52 questions; Part 5 multiple choice with 6 questions and four options; Part 6 gapped text with 6 gaps; Part 7 multiple matching with 10 questions). Check those pages again before test day.

No score guarantee, examiner approval or human review is claimed for any model or answer in this article.